doobsmeister
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- Jun 18, 2026
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Guys, in the curriculum on page 236 in “primer to commodity investing” it says:
In reference to exhibit 4
“Backwardation is no temporary phenomenon. The energy sector and the livestock sector, which contain the majority of nonstorable commodities, are characterized by a high percentage of backwardation”
Ok, so since these are nonstorable, in a hypothetical world, if someone were to “hold and sell” these futures, where would thse commodities be placed? For instance, you can store livestock in a farm.. but going back to the question, since these are non-storable, that means that the holder doesn’t bear the cost of storage? Is that why there is backwardation? Backwardation is a result of the holder benefiting from holding the commodity, thus this “nonstorable” feature allows the holder not to bear any costs of the commodity… Does this make sense..
Now to the second sentence:
” The precious metals sector, on the other hand, has been almost exclusively in contango due to its low storage costs”
Why does low storage costs equal contango? Don’t benefits to the holder reduce the price of futures? For instance, i have a stock and i get paid dividends, that is subtracted from the current price before calculating futures price.. Same theory goes for commodities, lower storage costs (benefit) should result in a decrease in futures price… So why is this saying the opposite?
Any help would be great.
In reference to exhibit 4
“Backwardation is no temporary phenomenon. The energy sector and the livestock sector, which contain the majority of nonstorable commodities, are characterized by a high percentage of backwardation”
Ok, so since these are nonstorable, in a hypothetical world, if someone were to “hold and sell” these futures, where would thse commodities be placed? For instance, you can store livestock in a farm.. but going back to the question, since these are non-storable, that means that the holder doesn’t bear the cost of storage? Is that why there is backwardation? Backwardation is a result of the holder benefiting from holding the commodity, thus this “nonstorable” feature allows the holder not to bear any costs of the commodity… Does this make sense..
Now to the second sentence:
” The precious metals sector, on the other hand, has been almost exclusively in contango due to its low storage costs”
Why does low storage costs equal contango? Don’t benefits to the holder reduce the price of futures? For instance, i have a stock and i get paid dividends, that is subtracted from the current price before calculating futures price.. Same theory goes for commodities, lower storage costs (benefit) should result in a decrease in futures price… So why is this saying the opposite?
Any help would be great.