Dear all,
I have the following open question from SS14, LOS 28b, pg 101 under strategic cost issues, 3rd bullet point
Statement:
It reads ’ forward currency contracts are often short term than the hedging period, requiring contracts be rolled over as they mature (an FX swap)
Q1. Why does it refer to ‘fx swap’ and not another forward currency contract’?
Continuing int he same bullet point.
‘Financial cash outflows when interest rates are high can be costly as the interest that would have been earned on the fund is lost’
Q2. How does the cash outflow situation arise?
Q3. How do we know if the interest rates are high and that is what creates a cash outflow situation.
Where I am struggling is to visualise this situation.
If anyone can kindly help.
Thank you
I have the following open question from SS14, LOS 28b, pg 101 under strategic cost issues, 3rd bullet point
Statement:
It reads ’ forward currency contracts are often short term than the hedging period, requiring contracts be rolled over as they mature (an FX swap)
Q1. Why does it refer to ‘fx swap’ and not another forward currency contract’?
Continuing int he same bullet point.
‘Financial cash outflows when interest rates are high can be costly as the interest that would have been earned on the fund is lost’
Q2. How does the cash outflow situation arise?
Q3. How do we know if the interest rates are high and that is what creates a cash outflow situation.
Where I am struggling is to visualise this situation.
If anyone can kindly help.
Thank you