Hey @ all,
the solution of the above-mentioned example states that if a surprise rate hike in one country happens, the currency of that country is likely to rise. I understand this reasoning (thinking of capitel inflows to that currency or like the logic of the carry trade, respectively).
My question: if I would assume that the (un)covered interest parity holds, the effect should be “vice versa”, shouldn’t it? Second, should we always assume that the (un)covered interest parity does not hold when it comes to the exam?
Thanks!
the solution of the above-mentioned example states that if a surprise rate hike in one country happens, the currency of that country is likely to rise. I understand this reasoning (thinking of capitel inflows to that currency or like the logic of the carry trade, respectively).
My question: if I would assume that the (un)covered interest parity holds, the effect should be “vice versa”, shouldn’t it? Second, should we always assume that the (un)covered interest parity does not hold when it comes to the exam?
Thanks!