Submariner
New member
- Jun 18, 2026
- 0
- 0
Interest received in advance: Company A received $300,000 in advance. The interest is taxed because tax regulators recognize interest to accrue to the company (part of taxable income) on date of receipt.
The book asks us to determine the carrying amount and tax base. I had initially thought the carrying amount = $300,000 (which it does) and that the tax base = $300,000 (it actually is $0) but I’m not 100% sure as to why.
The book goes on to say that interest is deemed to accrue to the company on the date of receipt, and that it must be included in taxable income in the financial year it is received. If that is the case, why isn’t the tax base $300,000? The book also says that it was not included on the IS because the income relates to a future financial year. That seems contradictory to the question, which says that the interest is taxed when received. Finally, it states that because the full $300,000 is included in taxable income in the current fiscal year, the tax base = $300,000 - $300,000. I’m totally lost.
Any help would be much appreciated. Thank you.
P.S. one more thing. The book states that the tax base of a liability = the carrying amount - the amount that will be deducted for tax purposes in the future while the tax base of revenue received in advance = the carrying amount - the amount that will NOT be taxed in the future. I’m not sure how that makes sense.
The book asks us to determine the carrying amount and tax base. I had initially thought the carrying amount = $300,000 (which it does) and that the tax base = $300,000 (it actually is $0) but I’m not 100% sure as to why.
The book goes on to say that interest is deemed to accrue to the company on the date of receipt, and that it must be included in taxable income in the financial year it is received. If that is the case, why isn’t the tax base $300,000? The book also says that it was not included on the IS because the income relates to a future financial year. That seems contradictory to the question, which says that the interest is taxed when received. Finally, it states that because the full $300,000 is included in taxable income in the current fiscal year, the tax base = $300,000 - $300,000. I’m totally lost.
Any help would be much appreciated. Thank you.
P.S. one more thing. The book states that the tax base of a liability = the carrying amount - the amount that will be deducted for tax purposes in the future while the tax base of revenue received in advance = the carrying amount - the amount that will NOT be taxed in the future. I’m not sure how that makes sense.