Hi,
I have a question that is really eating my mind.
According to the tax base of an assets if their economics benefits will not be taxable, the tax base of the asset is equal to its carrying amount.
Looking at the following example : “Dividends receivable from a subsidiary have a carrying amount of 100. The dividends are not taxable. In substance, the entire carrying amount of the asset is deductible against the economic benefits. Consequently, the tax base of the dividends receivable is 100.”
Would no better to have a tax base of 0, so I wont get take away any of the dividens I am receiving.
I probably have understood it wrong, but from my point of view if I have tax base of an asset which is positive (like hundred in this example) I will pay money to the tax authorities.
But, since dividends are not taxable why is not their tax base 0?
Please HELP.
I have a question that is really eating my mind.
According to the tax base of an assets if their economics benefits will not be taxable, the tax base of the asset is equal to its carrying amount.
Looking at the following example : “Dividends receivable from a subsidiary have a carrying amount of 100. The dividends are not taxable. In substance, the entire carrying amount of the asset is deductible against the economic benefits. Consequently, the tax base of the dividends receivable is 100.”
Would no better to have a tax base of 0, so I wont get take away any of the dividens I am receiving.
I probably have understood it wrong, but from my point of view if I have tax base of an asset which is positive (like hundred in this example) I will pay money to the tax authorities.
But, since dividends are not taxable why is not their tax base 0?
Please HELP.