When calculating the terminal year non-operating cash flow for replacement project, we do we subtract the slavage value of the old one?
Isn’t we taking into account of the old equipment in the first place? We sold the old equipment when purchasing the new one, and the cash flow occured in the beginning, thus we need to subtract the gain from the sale of the old equipment from the inital outlay. Initial outlay = FC + WC - (old salvage value at time 0 - T * (salvage value - book value)).
So again, my question is why do the old salvage value appears in the calculation of the terminal value?
Thanks.
Isn’t we taking into account of the old equipment in the first place? We sold the old equipment when purchasing the new one, and the cash flow occured in the beginning, thus we need to subtract the gain from the sale of the old equipment from the inital outlay. Initial outlay = FC + WC - (old salvage value at time 0 - T * (salvage value - book value)).
So again, my question is why do the old salvage value appears in the calculation of the terminal value?
Thanks.