Can anyone let me know whether it is possible for an AR(1) time series to have a finite mean-reverting level and at the same time have the absolute value of the lag coefficient being greater than 1?
If it is possible, what are the implication(s), if any? If it is not possible, why not?
Thanks!
If it is possible, what are the implication(s), if any? If it is not possible, why not?
Thanks!