For the payout ratio (1-b) is assumed to be constant. Therefore D1/E1 is equal to D0/E0. If these two equal each other that means D0/E0 is already multiplied by (1+g)/(1+g). Is this a correct way of thinking? I understand that:
E1 = E0 (1+g)
I don’t get why there is an additional (1+g) in the trailing P/E formula if the payout ratio already takes (1+g) into consideration.
E1 = E0 (1+g)
I don’t get why there is an additional (1+g) in the trailing P/E formula if the payout ratio already takes (1+g) into consideration.