Hey guys!
I have a question regarding CAPM and the Treynor ratio:
Treynor ratio = (R_p - R_f)/(beta_p)
But according to the Security Market Line the relationship between the expected portfolio return and beta is linear.
So am I correct with my assumption that the expected treynor ratio ex ante is always 1, and the treynor ratio is only used to compare how a portfolio did ex post, when the R_p is the actual outcome?
Thanks
I have a question regarding CAPM and the Treynor ratio:
Treynor ratio = (R_p - R_f)/(beta_p)
But according to the Security Market Line the relationship between the expected portfolio return and beta is linear.
So am I correct with my assumption that the expected treynor ratio ex ante is always 1, and the treynor ratio is only used to compare how a portfolio did ex post, when the R_p is the actual outcome?
Thanks