Looking to see if you all agree with my thinking here.
Let’s take inventory turnover as an example. From the CFA curriculum:
“Because cost of goods sold measures the cost of inventory that has been sold, [the inventory turnover] ratio measures how many times per year the entire inventory was theoretically turned over, or sold. (We say that the entire inventory was “theoretically” sold because in practice companies do not generally sell out their entire inventory.)”
My contention: inventory turnover doesn’t even tell you “theoretically” how many times the entire inventory was turned over.
A simple example will make this clear:
Suppose you purchase $5 of inventory and then sell it in even installments over the course of 3 months. You then do the same thing for the subsequent 3 months (ie, add $5 to inventory and then gradually sell it down to zero). You do this a total of 4 times in the year. That is, you turn over your inventory (going from $5 to zero) four times in the year.
Contrast that with what you’d calculate using the inventory turnover formula. For COGS, you’d have $20 and it’s pretty obvious that $5 –> $0 in even installments implies average inventory of $2.50.
But that suggests that you turned over your inventory 8 ($20/$2.50) times, not 4. So even in a highly stylized example where we do in fact run inventory down to zero before restocking, the inventory turnover calculation doesn’t actually show how many times we turned inventory.
Now, if we were to change the definition so that as our denominator we used beginning period inventory ($5 in my example) the calculation’s output would match reality. And this seems to make more intuitive sense; in effect, you’re saying “I started the year with $5 in inventory and then generated $20 of sales over the year, so I cycled my inventory 4 times.”
Maybe we use average inventory in the denominator to smooth out the impact of any outliers (say, for example, we randomly began the year with much higher than usual inventory for some reason)? In other words, we’re taking average inventory to be a “normalized” beginning inventory.
What do you guys/gals think?
Let’s take inventory turnover as an example. From the CFA curriculum:
“Because cost of goods sold measures the cost of inventory that has been sold, [the inventory turnover] ratio measures how many times per year the entire inventory was theoretically turned over, or sold. (We say that the entire inventory was “theoretically” sold because in practice companies do not generally sell out their entire inventory.)”
My contention: inventory turnover doesn’t even tell you “theoretically” how many times the entire inventory was turned over.
A simple example will make this clear:
Suppose you purchase $5 of inventory and then sell it in even installments over the course of 3 months. You then do the same thing for the subsequent 3 months (ie, add $5 to inventory and then gradually sell it down to zero). You do this a total of 4 times in the year. That is, you turn over your inventory (going from $5 to zero) four times in the year.
Contrast that with what you’d calculate using the inventory turnover formula. For COGS, you’d have $20 and it’s pretty obvious that $5 –> $0 in even installments implies average inventory of $2.50.
But that suggests that you turned over your inventory 8 ($20/$2.50) times, not 4. So even in a highly stylized example where we do in fact run inventory down to zero before restocking, the inventory turnover calculation doesn’t actually show how many times we turned inventory.
Now, if we were to change the definition so that as our denominator we used beginning period inventory ($5 in my example) the calculation’s output would match reality. And this seems to make more intuitive sense; in effect, you’re saying “I started the year with $5 in inventory and then generated $20 of sales over the year, so I cycled my inventory 4 times.”
Maybe we use average inventory in the denominator to smooth out the impact of any outliers (say, for example, we randomly began the year with much higher than usual inventory for some reason)? In other words, we’re taking average inventory to be a “normalized” beginning inventory.
What do you guys/gals think?