Uncovered Interest Rate Parity and

gazhoo

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Hi, when the interest rate is higher in Country A than Country B…why is the currency value of Country A expected to depreciate? Isn’t this counter intuitive? I know I’m wrong but, I don’t understand this.
thanks.
 
It seems that it is the opposite as in the case of covered interest partiy?
 
If Country A has higher interest rates doesn’t it seem logical that the rates will induce more capital inflows therefore an appreciation of Country A currency.
 
^ Only if you are talking REAL interest rates. Nominal interest rates may be high just due to high inflation.
 
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