Can anyone comment if the following formula for calculating the Free Cash Flows is correct?
FCF = EBIT (1-T) - change in NWC - change in CapEx
Schweser doesn't seem to mention it. The only one they have is
FCF = CFO - (CapEx - After-tax proceeds from asset sales).
FCF = EBIT (1-T) - change in NWC - change in CapEx
Schweser doesn't seem to mention it. The only one they have is
FCF = CFO - (CapEx - After-tax proceeds from asset sales).