Really struggling to understand the formula for valuing a curreny forward at any point in time. I’m only having difficulties figuring out why the Spot rate at time t is discounted by the Rf of the foriegn currency by a factor of T-t.
For example:
90-day forward
Spot rate at t = 0 = $.60
Spot rate at t = 30 = $.61
Why do I take the PV of the S1 by the foreign Rf to arrive at the forwards valuation at t=1? I get we have to take the PV of the forward to arrive at its value at t=1 since its valuation is based on t=3. But aren’t we trying to dervive the value of the anticipated forward rate at T=1 versus the given spot at t=1? I think it would make sense if the questions asked what the value of the forward contract is right now if the spot rate in 30 days was .61…
S2000, read your blog that breaks the formula down… It helped but is still not fully clicking.
For example:
90-day forward
Spot rate at t = 0 = $.60
Spot rate at t = 30 = $.61
Why do I take the PV of the S1 by the foreign Rf to arrive at the forwards valuation at t=1? I get we have to take the PV of the forward to arrive at its value at t=1 since its valuation is based on t=3. But aren’t we trying to dervive the value of the anticipated forward rate at T=1 versus the given spot at t=1? I think it would make sense if the questions asked what the value of the forward contract is right now if the spot rate in 30 days was .61…
S2000, read your blog that breaks the formula down… It helped but is still not fully clicking.