abhiroopron
New member
- Jun 1, 2016
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Hi friends,
I have a doubt pertaining to the formula given in for valuing a currency forward prior to expiration.
The discounting to current day is done by dividing the numerator [ 1 + R(days/360)]. This is essentially discounting at simple interest. Why is the discount factor not [1 + R]^days/360 which would be discounting at a compound rate (which is used in forwards material of the curriculum btw)
Thanks!
I have a doubt pertaining to the formula given in for valuing a currency forward prior to expiration.
The discounting to current day is done by dividing the numerator [ 1 + R(days/360)]. This is essentially discounting at simple interest. Why is the discount factor not [1 + R]^days/360 which would be discounting at a compound rate (which is used in forwards material of the curriculum btw)
Thanks!