Embassy Corp. purchased a milling machine on June 30, 2001, for $6,600,000. The machine was being depreciated using the straight-line method over five years until January 1, 2004, when the total useful life was revised downward to four years and the salvage value was changed from $600,000 to $300,000
Depreciation Expense related to this machine as shown on Embassy�s income statement for the year ended December 31, 2004, is:
A) $2,000,000.
B) $1,800,000.
C) $1,200,000.
D) $2,200,000.
Your answer: B was incorrect. The correct answer was D) $2,200,000.
The book value of the machine at January 1, 2004, was $3,600,000 (the purchase price of $6,600,000 less straight line depreciation for 30 of the 60 months of useful life based on purchase price less salvage value (($6,600,000 - $600,000) / 60 * 30 = $3,000,000). Revising the salvage value to $300,000 means that $3,300,000 ($3,600,000 - $300,000) remains to be depreciated over the revised remaining useful life of 18 months. Therefore, 12 of the final 18 months of depreciation take place in 2004, and 2004 depreciation is ($3,300,000 / 18 * 12 =) $2,200,000.
I'm almost positive this is a violation of GAAP. I believe that according to GAAP, one must depreciate an asset for the entire year or for none of the year when a purchase is made in the middle of the year. I'm ALMOST certain there is no such thing as prorating depreciation over months. Any accountants in the house? Did my accounting classes teach me wrong?
Depreciation Expense related to this machine as shown on Embassy�s income statement for the year ended December 31, 2004, is:
A) $2,000,000.
B) $1,800,000.
C) $1,200,000.
D) $2,200,000.
Your answer: B was incorrect. The correct answer was D) $2,200,000.
The book value of the machine at January 1, 2004, was $3,600,000 (the purchase price of $6,600,000 less straight line depreciation for 30 of the 60 months of useful life based on purchase price less salvage value (($6,600,000 - $600,000) / 60 * 30 = $3,000,000). Revising the salvage value to $300,000 means that $3,300,000 ($3,600,000 - $300,000) remains to be depreciated over the revised remaining useful life of 18 months. Therefore, 12 of the final 18 months of depreciation take place in 2004, and 2004 depreciation is ($3,300,000 / 18 * 12 =) $2,200,000.
I'm almost positive this is a violation of GAAP. I believe that according to GAAP, one must depreciate an asset for the entire year or for none of the year when a purchase is made in the middle of the year. I'm ALMOST certain there is no such thing as prorating depreciation over months. Any accountants in the house? Did my accounting classes teach me wrong?