Joey has a lot of good points. I'm not as good on the pure math side, but I come from a causal modeling background in the social sciences which uses a lot of statistics.
I didn't fully understand the problem you posed. It sounds like you have an account or portfolio that increases or decreases in value on a daily basis and trends upwards on average, and you have depositors that make random withdrawals on a daily basis, and you want to find out how much of the account needs to be in cash so that, 95% of the time, the guys making withdrawals have enough money. The only data you have is the daily size of the account, so that daily changes reflect both increases/decreases due to the investment portion and decreases/increases due to withdrawals/deposits. Is that it?
Of what's been said above, I don't have much to add, but if you do analyze just the down-residuals, you really should have some explicit reason for doing so - something that suggests that the there are special processes that affect the down side differently than the up side. This reason should include some expectation that the distribution of residuals would not be normal (or at least not be symmetric). Otherwise, just go ahead and use simple regression residuals on detrended data. If you do analyze down-residuals separately, you should also analyze the up-residuals separately and compare the results to see if they are symmetrical. There is presumably some kind of test to do this, though I'm sure someone has figured the test out long ago and I don't know it off hand. I suppose if symmetrical, up residuals and down residuals should have equal variances and equal, but opposite signed, means. You could use a t-test for equivalence of means for the means and a test for equivalence of variances for the variances, I guess, but that may be overkill. Really you just want to see if the upside residuals look substantially different from the downside ones.
The more I think about it, the more this seems like a complicated problem; more likely, there are additional constraints that haven't been mentioned in this thread that would simplify it.
I didn't fully understand the problem you posed. It sounds like you have an account or portfolio that increases or decreases in value on a daily basis and trends upwards on average, and you have depositors that make random withdrawals on a daily basis, and you want to find out how much of the account needs to be in cash so that, 95% of the time, the guys making withdrawals have enough money. The only data you have is the daily size of the account, so that daily changes reflect both increases/decreases due to the investment portion and decreases/increases due to withdrawals/deposits. Is that it?
Of what's been said above, I don't have much to add, but if you do analyze just the down-residuals, you really should have some explicit reason for doing so - something that suggests that the there are special processes that affect the down side differently than the up side. This reason should include some expectation that the distribution of residuals would not be normal (or at least not be symmetric). Otherwise, just go ahead and use simple regression residuals on detrended data. If you do analyze down-residuals separately, you should also analyze the up-residuals separately and compare the results to see if they are symmetrical. There is presumably some kind of test to do this, though I'm sure someone has figured the test out long ago and I don't know it off hand. I suppose if symmetrical, up residuals and down residuals should have equal variances and equal, but opposite signed, means. You could use a t-test for equivalence of means for the means and a test for equivalence of variances for the variances, I guess, but that may be overkill. Really you just want to see if the upside residuals look substantially different from the downside ones.
The more I think about it, the more this seems like a complicated problem; more likely, there are additional constraints that haven't been mentioned in this thread that would simplify it.