is (long term debt(t-1)+equity(t-1)) also represent book value at time (t-1)? Thanks.
hw0799 Wrote:
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> when calculate $WACC, why use (long term
> debt+equity)*WACC? what long term deb+ equity
> stand for? Thanks.
Remember that invested capital is defined two ways:
1) the BV of long term debt + BV of equity
or
2) fixed capital + net working capital
This is why the Market Value Added formula is (fair value of long-term debt + fair value of equity) minus invested capital: you’re finding the amount of market value over the book value (the “spread” if you will) you have gained over the BV(longterm debt)+BV(equity).
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