yickwong Wrote:
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> huh? So the accounting for dilution is different
> from what will actually happen?
> Why don’t they just account for dilution as extra
> shares = warrants if the stock price is above
> strike price? What is the logic behind it?
Who knows what would actually happen? The “treasury stock” method of accounting is a pretty fanciful view of what might happen. Every derivatives book that values warrants I have ever seen assumes that warrants are completely dilutive - the proceeds from the exercise increase the value of the company and the number of shares outstanding goes up 1-1 with the number of shares created by the exercise of the warrant. While I don’t have solid empirical numbers on this, I’ll bet that’s much closer to reality than the “all proceeds used to repurchase stock as treasury stock”.
Don’t tell anyone I told you this but accounting for dilutive securities has always been a rat’s nest. The treasury stock method is quite an optimistic viewpoint for stock holders. As a financial analyst, you shouldn’t care at all how FASB or IASB says you should calculate numbers like EPS (in fact, it’s pretty odd that those organizations take any position on this at all since it’s not their job to tell financial analysts anything). If you see a company with lots of treasury stock, it’s because they don’t want the world to see the effects of dilution accruing to the benefit of corporate insiders.
Rule #1 about accounting - it’s all made-up BS created from odd compromises among accountants, politicians, and corporations. You should be able to read it and speak it because there’s lots of information there. But if you believe the information in that kind of literal sense, then you are being bullied by accounting rules and duped by everyone who uses them to advantage.
So a few things to think about:
1) Why do we have rules like FASB 128?
2) Why do dilutive securities exist?
3) How would you calculate EPS in whatever made up case you can think of when there are warrants extant?
4) “Why don’t they just account for dilution as extra shares = warrants if the stock price is above strike price?” Hint: In my example above, compare the volatility of the stock price with the volatility of EPS when the stock price is near the strike price. Which should be more volatile, stock price or EPS?