In calculating FCFF starting with either net income or CFO, why is the value of [interest expense x (t - tax rate)] added to net income to determine available cash? Maybe I’m just temporarily brain dead from studying too much today, but it seems counter intuitive to add an expense back to a cash calculation.
Is this simply the portion of interest paid on issued debt that receives preferential tax treatment? As in, net income already includes the full amount of interest expense removed, so we need to add back the portion that for tax purposes won’t reduce actual cash?
Thanks!
Is this simply the portion of interest paid on issued debt that receives preferential tax treatment? As in, net income already includes the full amount of interest expense removed, so we need to add back the portion that for tax purposes won’t reduce actual cash?
Thanks!