so in the earlier years, the expense on financing will be depreciation plus interest expense while the expense on operation will be the lease payment (which inclusive of interest expense implicitly), so these two amounts which one is higher absolutely? Assuming a straighline deprecation scheme, I think the 2 amount of expense in each year will be the same since both are inclusive of interest portion and deprecation portion, only implicitly or explicitly? Also, how is total equity affected by the 2 methods?