when valuing a bond why can’t you just use each YTM along the yield curve, that is, why can’t you just plug in those yields with each respective cash flow (maturity) instead of using spot rates at each maturity?
This may be a silly question, but what makes the spot rate/zero coupon bonds so much cleaner, for lack of a better term, when valuing bonds ?
Does this mean we should never use YTM to value bonds ? If so, why do we use YTM to calculate the difference in the price when rates change? Perhaps its bc YTM is IRR and if you want to know how much the inc/decrease is then you would use YTM, correct?
It just seems like we’ve used YTM to find the current price which we then use to determine the premium/discount. How does this hold up if we should be using spot rates to value the bond?